I guess one way to understand the Head Start theory is to consider that Europe and Middle East are part of the same ensemble as they have benefited from the same domesticable cereals and draught animals ? With Northern Europe having a temperate ecological environment that might have proved much less fragile over the long term.
Then on the matter of the Industrial Revolution occurring in England rather than anywhere else, I remember reading this article I found quite insightful : https://acoup.blog/2022/08/26/collections-why-no-roman-industrial-revolution/ Especially regarding the fact that it did need many more preconditions than one might think.
But if “ Europe and Middle East are part of the same ensemble” but experienced very different outcomes, this contradicts the Head Start theory.
Yes, I agree with you about the Middle East and Mediterranean Europe having more fragile ecosystems. This particularly impacted agricultural productivity, which is the key foundation for complex societies.
I have been meaning to write an article on why the Roman Empire did not industrialize, but I keep getting sidetracked. I have read the article you linked to and enjoyed it.
Your article about Britain industrialisation is more or less on the same line than the one I suggested. But the Acoup one has quite interesting technical details to consider. Especially regarding metallurgy knowledge in the European warfare context and the possibility to profit from primitive/low yield form of mechanical energy in the wool spinning industry.
Unless there is only one outcome for the whole Western Eurasia area which benefited from the same material. But with different outcomes depending on the sub-areas.
I guess one way to understand the Head Start theory is to consider that Europe and Middle East are part of the same ensemble as they have benefited from the same domesticable cereals and draught animals ? With Northern Europe having a temperate ecological environment that might have proved much less fragile over the long term.
Then on the matter of the Industrial Revolution occurring in England rather than anywhere else, I remember reading this article I found quite insightful : https://acoup.blog/2022/08/26/collections-why-no-roman-industrial-revolution/ Especially regarding the fact that it did need many more preconditions than one might think.
But if “ Europe and Middle East are part of the same ensemble” but experienced very different outcomes, this contradicts the Head Start theory.
Yes, I agree with you about the Middle East and Mediterranean Europe having more fragile ecosystems. This particularly impacted agricultural productivity, which is the key foundation for complex societies.
I wrote more about this here:
https://frompovertytoprogress.substack.com/p/how-geography-shaped-the-history
https://frompovertytoprogress.substack.com/p/how-geography-shaped-middle-eastern
As for Britain industrializing first:
https://frompovertytoprogress.substack.com/p/why-the-industrial-revolution-happened
I have been meaning to write an article on why the Roman Empire did not industrialize, but I keep getting sidetracked. I have read the article you linked to and enjoyed it.
Your article about Britain industrialisation is more or less on the same line than the one I suggested. But the Acoup one has quite interesting technical details to consider. Especially regarding metallurgy knowledge in the European warfare context and the possibility to profit from primitive/low yield form of mechanical energy in the wool spinning industry.
Unless there is only one outcome for the whole Western Eurasia area which benefited from the same material. But with different outcomes depending on the sub-areas.
But I will read all that asap 😊